Women Pastors, page 2

OPPOSING ARGUMENTS
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In spite of the positive and clear cut precepts that support male pastoral leadership and the lack of biblical precedent for ordaining women, there is still much repugnance to this point of observation; particularly by enraged feminists. In a bid to maintain their views, they have raised a number of objections in an attempt to evade, discredit, or reinterpret 1 Timothy 2:11-14 and 1 Corinthians 14:34-35. Let's now address some of their currently circulated arguments in support of women pastors.

1) Deborah the Judge

The Claim: There are those who believe that it is permissible for women to hold authoritive positions within the church based primarily on the account of Deborah the judge (Judges 4:4-5). But does Deborah in the book of Judges truly provide us with a concrete model about the office of authoritive leadership within the church? I believe that it does not for the following reason:

Rebuttal: Deborah was a judge and prophetess. Other women who were prophetesses include: Miriam (Exodus 15:20, 21), Huldah (2 Kings 22:14), and Anna (Luke 2:36). There is no question that Deborah and these other women were great and godly individuals who had significant influence. Their positions, however, are not comparable to that of a pastoral role. While God richly blesses women with spiritual gifts, nowhere in the Bible do we read that these women, or any other women, were ordained by God to the pastoral office and take authority in a church meeting. Thus, to employ the account of Deborah in the book of Judges as a basis for women leaders within the church is an inappropriate use of scriptural text.

2) Women Lacked Education

The Claim: Feminists allege that, in reference to 1 Timothy 2:11-14, the Apostle Paul disapproved of women in public ministry or to exercise authority over men on account women were generally untaught during ancient biblical times. Therefore, on the grounds that women today are significantly more educated, Paul's command is not universally binding in our current church age.

Rebuttal: Firstly, God chose female prophets who were intellectually capable to fulfill some significant roles in His Kingdom. Secondly, many women followed Jesus and learned from Him. Thirdly, nowhere does Paul infer educational status as a criterion for ministry. He (Paul) specifically mentions the reason for his directive for the prohibition of women pastors; and it is the creation order of man and woman by God. Apparently, many feminists have disregarded Paul's reason and substituted it with a speculative viewpoint. Let's assume for a moment Paul's prohibition was due to lack of education. Then why would he interdict uneducated women from teaching and not also uneducated men?

3) Restricted to Ephesian Women

The Claim: Pro-women ordainers assert that, in reference to 1 Timothy 2:11-14, the Apostle Paul only restricted the women in Ephesus from teaching. They claim that women were teaching false doctrines due to the influence in the worship at the Temple of Artemis. Artemis was a Greek pagan goddess, aka Diana, (Acts 19:23-41) that was worshipped by women in authority. Thus, in effect, it is suggested that Paul's statement in 1 Timothy, chapter 2, was to invalidate the doctrine of Artemis and create a platform of equality between men and women. However, on account that the women in Ephesus had been mislead, Paul restricts women from teaching. At that period, they were to resign themselves to learning The Word of God in silence. Therefore today, as long as a woman does not adopt a feminist supremacy mindset, this does not restrict her from acquiring a pastoral role within the church.

Rebuttal: Any suggestion that the Apostle Paul is confronting an issue of gender equality is faulty speculation ... reading into the text what is not there. Although Paul addressed errant teachers who were advocating unbiblical roles for women as well as stating that false teachers were plaguing the church at Ephesus (Acts 20:29-30), nowhere does he infer the worship of Artemis as a grounds for his restrictions of women pastors. Again, he indicatively points to the order of creation of man and woman by God to illustrate that the pastoral role should be occupied by a man. From God's perspective, gender functions are not related to gender equality. In the body of Christ, the Lord has assigned specific roles for men and women while affirming equality of personhood. Likened to Artemis worshippers, there are many today who are attempting to pervert God's design roles for men and women. And this is attributed to what occurred after the fall into sin as stated in Genesis 3:16.

4) Restricted to Husbands and Wives

The Claim: Advocates of women pastors declare that 1 Timothy 2:11-14 pertains only to husbands and wives and not to a church setting. They say that the Greek words for man (aner) and woman (gune), when used together, are indicative to wives and husbands, not men and women in general.

Rebuttal: The Greek words "aner" and "gune" in this passage could allude to "man" or "husband" and either "woman" or "wife" respectively. However, according to the context of this passage, the Greek words are in reference to men and women. The same Greek words are used in the preceding verses: "I desire therefore that the men pray everywhere, lifting up holy hands, without wrath and doubting; in like manner also, that the women adorn themselves in modest apparel, with propriety and moderation, not with braided hair or gold or pearls or costly clothing, but, which is proper for women professing godliness, with good works." (1 Timothy 2:8-10) If we accept the interpretation that verses 11-14 are referring solely to husbands and wives, then we must ask; "Are only husbands to pray everywhere?" "Are only wives to dress in modest apparel?" The answer to these questions should be obvious. Thus, the decisive clues from verses 8-10 should bring contextual balance in this entire passage ... proving that the Greek words are in reference to men and women, not husbands and wives.

5) A Temporary Command

The Claim: Proponents of women's ordination argue that the Apostle Paul knew that there was an abolishment of all gender-based roles, but neglected to fully address biblical equality on account that he feared to break with his culture. Such a radical move could potentially hinder the gospel. Thus, Paul's command in 1 Timothy 2:11-14 is culturally conditioned to the male chauvinist attitude of the church during his time period. This, coupled with the fact that Paul uses a present tense verb ("I do not permit"), illustrates that his command was a temporary cultural arrangement rather than universal truth for all cultures. Today's culture is supposedly more knowledgeable about the equality of men and women. Thus, Paul's teachings on women’s submission to male leadership in the church and the home are no longer applicable.

Rebuttal: This type of argument is simply contradictory speculation. There are no indications in scripture that Paul's command was grounded in cultural conformity. It bears repeating. Paul's prohibition for women exercising the role of authoritative teaching is grounded in the creation process of man and woman by God. This dispels any notion that his command was temporary or culturally conditioned. Furthermore, to contend that Paul's use of the present tense verb can be interpreted as a temporary command overlooks the fact that he also used present indicatives to give acceptable and authoritative instruction in Romans 12:1; 1 Corinthians 4:16; 1 Timothy 2:1,8; just to mention a few. Let's also consider that Jesus chose twelve men to be his disciples. Some advocates of women's ordination find it easier to resort to faulty conjecture rather than accept the explicit reason for Paul's interdiction of women pastors. In this example, as well as others, pro-women ordainers attempt to twist and nullify the authority of scriptures in an endeavor to occupy leadership positions in the church.

6) The Definition of the Word "Authority"

The Claim: Proponents of women's ordination contend that the word "authority" (Greek word "authentein") in 1 Timothy 2:12 was altered. Instead of being rendered as "to exercise authority", its true definition means to "not domineer" or "not misuse authority." In the context of its diction, the Greek word "authentein" is used only once in the New Testament by the Apostle Paul. Thus, referencing back to the pagan goddess Artemis (Diana) in Ephesus, what Paul is really saying is that women should "not dominate" or "misuse authority" over men. If Paul was speaking in context of the normal word for "authority", why didn't he use the Greek word "exousia" (to rule over, to have authority over) instead of "authentein" (to domineer, misuse authority)? Therefore, it is permissible for women to teach and exercise authority over men pending that their authority does not become domineering or abusive.

Rebuttal: The Greek word "authentein" has various renditions. Its definition is dependent upon its linguistic source and the context of its usage. In ancient extrabiblical literature, "authentein" could mean in a negative connotation "to domineer, misuse authority." However, "authentein" in the New Testament (1 Tim. 2:12), being a hapex legomenon (meaning occurring once) is defined in a positive manner as "to exercise authority over." One major aspect of this deduction is based on the fact that the word "or" ("oude"), which juxtaposes "to teach" and "to have authority", coordinates terms that are either both observed positively or negatively. The term "to teach" is always interpreted positively in the New Testament. The only exclusion is in Titus 1:11 where the context is explicitly referencing false doctrine. Thus, viewed within its correct grammatical context, "authentein" should be rendered in a positive aspect to mean "to exercise authority." A lexical study of the Greek word "authentein" in this verse has revealed it as being synonymous with the word "exousia". The Thesaurus Linguae Graecae project established in 1972 by the University of California, Irvine, and a data bank of ancient Greek/Roman manuscripts at Duke University states that the primary definition of "authentein" in Greek vernacular during the time of the Apostle Paul was rendered as "to exercise authority over." Lastly, Paul's expression "to be in silence" is distinctively contrary to teaching and exercising authority over men in a church assembly. Thus, if we accept the proponents of women's ordination viewpoint, then 1 Timothy 2:12 makes no biblical sense.

7) On account that Paul was prejudiced against women, his statements to Timothy in 1 Tim. 2 are incorrect. It was just his personal perspective, not a stipulation from God.

The Claim: Radical liberal groups believe that the Apostle Paul penned 1 Timothy 2 in a manner that reflected his own personal prejudices against women rather than what was given to him by Divine inspiration. An article regarding the epistles of the Apostle Paul was presented in the April 5, 1999 issue of the U.S. News & World Report. The article titled, "Reassessing an Apostle: The Quest for the Historical St. Paul Yields Some Surprising New Theories", stated that Paul's writings were words "not quite in lock-step with his master."

Rebuttal: The Apostle Paul prejudiced against women? The Apostle Paul theologically inconsistent? I believe such caricatured charges by proponents of women's ordinations are rooted more in satanic influence than honest ignorance. The Bible states that the Thessalonians, the Philippians, and the Corinthians received Paul's teachings not according to personal prejudices, but as inspired truth (1 Thess. 2:13; Phil. 4:9; 1 Cor. 14:36-37). If Paul was prejudiced, why would he have shared his efforts for the gospel with numerous women? If Paul was prejudiced against women, why would he state, "Husbands, love your wives, just as Christ also loved the church and gave Himself for her, that He might sanctify and cleanse her with the washing of water by the word, that He might present her to Himself a glorious church, not having spot or wrinkle or any such thing, but that she should be holy and without blemish. So husbands ought to love their own wives as their own bodies; he who loves his wife loves himself. For no one ever hated his own flesh, but nourishes and cherishes it, just as the Lord does the church" (Eph. 5:25-29). Here, Paul expressly states that it is a husband's responsibility to love his wife as Christ loves the church -- a love that embraces unreserved and sacrificial love, and if necessary, at the price of his own life. In verses 28 and 29, Paul continues by saying that a husband is to love his wife with the same devotion that he naturally demonstrates for himself. Such statements by Paul clearly indicate that his teachings were void of personal prejudices against women. Paul's character and teachings are completely harmonious with the character and teachings of Christ. Likened to Jesus, he never appointed women to leadership positions within the church. Bear in mind, all twelve apostles appointed by Christ were men.

8) Phoebe was a preacher.

The Claim: On the premise of Romans 16:1-2, some have contested that Phoebe was a preacher. The Amplified Bible states that Phoebe was a "deaconess." On account that the Apostle Paul is referred to as a deacon in 2 Corinthians, some have suggested that Phoebe was an overseer in the church. Since the church was to "assist her in whatever business" and she was "a helper of many", the implication in Roman 16:2 is that she was in a position of authority over the church in Cenchrea.

Rebuttal: Phoebe was not a preacher. However, she did hold office of deacon or "deaconess." A "deaconess" is a female believer who serves in the office of deacon in the church. Depending upon the context of the passage involved, a deacon could be a servant and / or a preacher. In Romans 16:1, the Greek word for deaconess is "diakonos"; simply rendered as "servant." In reference to this verse, the King James, New American Standard, New International Version, and New King James Bibles have translated "diakonos" as "servant." While the scriptures do not explicitly define Phoebe's responsibilities, as a servant, she could have been responsible for taking care of the administrative needs of the church, teaching other women, caring for the sick, poor, etc. The qualifications of deacons as it relates to pastoral positions can only be occupied by men (1 Tim. 3:12). Furthermore, the Greek word "prostatis" ("helper") in verse two simply means "assistant" or "patroness." There is no such rendition during New Testament times to suggest that "a helper of many" is exclusively indicative of one who exercises a position of authority in the church. If this was the case, then Phoebe exercised authority over the Apostle Paul, for she had been his helper. Clearly, the latter viewpoint is extremely vague at best.

9) The Apostle Paul authorized women to be preachers in Galatians 3:28.

The Claim: On account that God is not a respector of persons (Romans 2:11), feminist point to and emphasize the sociological implications of Galatians 3:28 to claim that Paul authorized women to be preachers. Because feminists want to rule out the submission of women to male leadership in the church, they allege that Paul rendered void any gender-based differentiations within the church.

Rebuttal: To assert that this verse eliminates differences in authority and submission will simply not suffice. In Galatians 3:28, Paul is not discussing the matter of whether Jews or Gentiles, slaves or those who are free, or men or women, could take authoritative positions in the church. If we read the preceding verses, it should be clear that Paul is speaking in the context of salvation, which is also the theme of Romans 2:11. In expounding the meaning of salvation, the Apostle Paul asserts that in Christ there is "neither Jew nor Gentile, slave or free, male or female." Everyone who is baptized into Christ, irrespective of ethnicity, economic status, or gender, inherits grace apart from works; and thus, are to be unified in the Body of Christ (Gal. 3:22, 24, 26). Although those within the Body of Christ are considered equal by God, this does not eradicate legitimate gender distinctions and God's divine order of authority between men and women. For example, Ephesians 5:23 clearly states: For the Husband is head of the wife, as also Christ is head of the church; and He is the Savior of the body." Thus again, Galatians 3:28 pertains to salvation, not headship in the home or the authority structure within the church.

10) The exclusion of women from the pastoral position is comparable to slavery, which also existed during ancient biblical times.

The Claim: During ancient biblical days, just as in our present age, there were oppressive systems that regarded women and other nationalities as inferior. For example, likened to the hierarchy of men over women, slavery was a system that was in force during biblical times. It is an oppressive structure that is defended by Christians today that is similar to their defense of male headship.

Rebuttal: The principle of male leadership is similar to slavery, but not in the context of conventional thinking. The word, "slave", is not necessarily a negative term. A slave is simply one who is owned by another. It is the abuse of slavery that is problematic. God never condoned nor condemned slavery, but regulated it simply on account that it existed during ancient biblical times. Where slavery existed in the New Testament, God commanded masters and slaves to conduct themselves in Christ like manner. For Christians, we are slaves to Christ (1 Cor. 6:19-20; 7:22-23, Romans 6:17-22); and Christ is our leader and master. Similarly, man is the leader in the home and church. Again, male leadership is a principle that was established by God at creation. On the contrary, the abuse of slavery is a man-made cultural system that misrepresents God's perfect will for mankind, is morally wrong, and cannot be comparable to male leadership within the home or church. The "Illustrated Dictionary of The Bible" states: "The Bible contains warnings about the practice of slavery. The prophet Amos spoke woe to Gaza and Tyre for their practices of slave-trading entire populations (Amos 1:6-9). The Book of Revelation declares that disaster awaits those who sell slaves (Rev. 18:13). (The Illustrated Dictionary of The Bible, Slave, Slavery, p. 998, Herbert Lockyer, Sr., Editor) ---The "Baker Theological Dictionary of the Bible" says: "The Old Testament record of Israel's origin and development demonstrates that they functioned within the cultural milieu of their own time. God's self-disclosure and direction to his elect nation often accommodated existing cultural aspects. While such accommodation reflects God's way of dealing with his creation, it does not necessarily imply his ideal will. Slavery is accepted in the Old Testament as part of the world in which Israel functioned....The Old Testament raised the status of the slave from property to that of a human being who happened to be owned by another person (Exod. 21:20, 26-27; Job 31:13-15; Eccles. 7:21-22).... Inhumane treatment by masters was grounds for release (Exod. 21:7-11, 26-27; Deut. 21:14)." (Baker Theological Dictionary of the Bible, Slave, Slavery, p. 740, Edited by Walter A. Elwell) Although slavery existed during biblical times, we cannot assume that it was a system established by God and place the principle of male leadership on par with such a system.

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